Tactical Sustainment Operations – Contested Logistics 1 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which medical role provides initial wound/damage control surgery?
• Which of the following is not one of the three dimensions described?
• Which term describes a recurring schedule that aligns command, staff, and unit activities to synchronize operations?
• In a high-pressure situation, a force may slow the enemy to gain time without seeking decisive engagement; this is best described as which retrograde operation?
• What acts as a liaison between the BSB and the maneuver BN?
• Who establishes the combat trains in sustainment planning?
• Distance from DSA to BSA is in which range?
• Which company is able to assault through small arms and indirect fires to deliver INF SQDS to the objective?
• In a standard heavy division task organization, how many ABCTs are included?
• Which form of area defense denies the enemy topographical crest (top of a hill)?
• I Corps is located at which installation?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of Brigade Combat Team?
• What are the two considerations when selecting a site?
• Which graphic would you use to show when and where support functions are executed during a mission?
• Which units usually operate as part of a division?
• Which principle is described as the most critical and as combining all sustainment elements?
• How many steps are there in engagement area development?
• An area where the commander intends to contain and destroy an enemy force with the massed effects of all available weapons and supporting systems is called what?
• Which unit is non divisionally aligned BN, area support?
• Which medical role provides basic resuscitation?
• What is the Brigade-level sustainment unit called?
• Within the Tactical Level of War, which support area/echelon contains the Brigade Support Battalion?
• Which option correctly lists the five domains?
• Which obstacle effect slows an attacker; typically in an engagement area to give friendly units time to destroy the enemy?
• Which variation of an attack is intended to temporarily seize an objective with a planned withdrawal?
• How many Bradley Fighting Vehicles are in the mechanized infantry company?
• Which term defines a retrograde operation in which a force in contact disengages from the enemy force?
• Which set of elements must be synchronized to execute defense forms in combined arms organizations?
• Which installation is not the home of any of the listed corps?
• What are the three types of Brigade Combat Teams?
• Which term refers to the area that aggregates brigade-level sustainment resources to support a division?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between logistics as an element of sustainment?
• Why are MATP's typically located outside the BSA?
• Which form denies the enemy topographical crest?
• Which term describes providing sustainment resources in an efficient manner to employ all assets?
• Which term describes units that return to their parent HQs when the attachment ends?
• Where is V Corps headquartered?
• If defense is successful, to what type of operation should a unit transition?
• Which term describes the process of coordinating current and future operations through a cycle of command and staff activities?
• Which abbreviation stands for a Combat Sustainment Support Battalion?
• Which threat level corresponds to an enemy force beyond the defensive capability of both the base and base cluster and any local reserve?
• Which defense arrangement is used by BSA to secure its perimeter?
• Distance from BSA to CTCP is in which range?
• In the company trains, what can you find?
• Which term describes a defense focused on the destruction of the enemy rather than holding terrain?
• Which unit is the smallest combined arms unit that can be committed independently?
• Which obstacle effect diverts the enemy formation off one engagement area to an adjacent area or into the engagement area?
• Where is XVIII Airborne Corps headquartered?
• What roles of care are in a Brigade Combat Team?
• Which term describes a tactic executed to gain time, preserve forces, and position the enemy unfavorably?
• Which offensive objective corresponds to defeating enemy forces, destroying enemy forces, and gaining control of terrain, resources, and population centers?
• Which offensive operation follows the conduct of an attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy?
• What is the primary purpose of LOGSTAT in sustainment planning?
• Why are the MATP's typically outside of the BSA?
• Which obstacle effect stops an attacker along a specific engagement area or prevents the enemy from advancing through the engagement area?
• Executed to gain time, preserve forces, place the enemy in unfavorable positions, or avoid combat under undesirable conditions?
• Which form of maneuver seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force in place over a broad front?
• Which distance range is not used in the distance chart?
• True or False: An FSC must never deliver supplies to multiple companies during LOGPAC operations.
• Bradley Fighting Vehicles are primarily associated with which mechanized formation?
• What unit is non divisionally aligned SB, area support?
• Which obstacle effect breaks up enemy formation and tempo; cause piecemeal attack?
• Which are the three types of defensive operations?
• True or False: The medical evacuation flow consists of evacuating from Strategic to Tactical.
• Which medical role provides immediate life saving measures?
• Which of the following is NOT a form of retrograde?
• Which term includes all aspects of protecting personnel, weapons, and supplies while also deceiving the enemy?
• Term for a retrograde move where a unit leaves contact and then proceeds to a new position away from the enemy?
• FTCP stands for which of the following?
• Which form is used around a base cluster defense; oriented in all directions; with aggressive patrolling and security operations?
• Movement to Contact is an offensive operation designed to develop the situation and create favorable conditions where the enemy location is uncertain?
• Which retrograde action focuses on slowing the enemy to prevent decisive engagement?
• If a unit breaks contact with an enemy and moves to a new location, this action is best described as which retrograde operation?
• An immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas; use of all firepower is called what?
• Deny enemy access to designated terrain for a specific time, limiting their freedom of maneuver and channeling them into killing areas is described as which concept?
• The forward logistics element (FLE) is comprised of task-organized multifunctional logistics assets designed to support fast-moving offensive operations. Which option names this element?
• Which of the following is NOT a Tactical Level of War support area/echelon?
• Which option lists the four elements of the sustainment warfighting function?
• Which term describes a retrograde operation in which a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing the enemy's momentum without decisive engagement?
• Which concept best describes directing all combat power toward defeating the enemy's forces?
• Which company in the BSA do you posture against the most threatening avenue of approach?
• If you need the most definitive care, which medical role provides it?
• In the CTCP, which element is commonly included as a field feeding function?
• Which unit is an organic unit of the Brigade Support Battalion but attached to a maneuver battalion?
• Which term describes units assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization?
• Which statement best describes the role of sustainment in operations?
• Which statement best describes the role of sustainment relative to the warfighting functions?
• Which distribution method would you use to bypass an intermediate echelon?
• What term describes an environment in which armed forces face challenges in all domains and logistics operations are targeted by an adversary?
• What is the order of the echelon trains from largest to smallest?
• Which item is not typically found in the Combat Trains Command Post?
• What is the term for the graphical representation of locations of sustainment units, support areas, MSRs, main/alternate supply routes, and unit boundaries?
• When a unit moves away from the enemy while staying out of contact, this retrograde operation is called?
• What is the standard heavy division task organization?
• An engagement area is designed to mass the effects of all available weapons to achieve which outcome?
• What offensive operation is designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape?
• Which term describes a physically defined portion of an operational environment requiring a unique set of warfighting capabilities and skills?
• Which term describes specialized missions that units plan to seize or retrain a tactical advantage?
• Who establishes the combat trains and where is the command post found?
• In the CTCP (combat trains command post), which element can you find?
• What are the five forms of maneuver?
• Distance from CTCP to Co Train is in which range?
• Which word is a warfighting function that represents the function of sustaining operations by providing goods, services, and maintenance?
• True or False: A single operation may contain multiple forms of maneuver.
• What is the mission for the Field Maintenance Team (FMT)?
• Which distance is listed for Co Train to FLOT?
• If defense is unsuccessful, what is the transition?
• A force disengages from combat and withdraws to a safer position is described as which retrograde operation?
• Which graphic displays which support functions are executed when and where during a mission?
• Which distance range is listed for DSA to BSA?
• When displacing the BSA, what is the FLE used for?
• Which offensive operation seeks to destroy enemy forces and seize terrain or both?
• Which of the following lists the four types of offensive operations?
• Which type of battery is designated to suppress, neutralize, or destroy the enemy to enable movement and maneuver on the battlefield?
• Which term is used to describe a diagram mapping the locations of sustainment units, support areas, MSRs, and boundaries?
• Distance from Co Train to FLOT is in which range?
• What is the decisive form of war?
• What is established in the CTCP and BSA based on mission requirements?
• How are Bradley Fighting Vehicles distributed in the mechanized infantry company?
• How many warfighting functions are identified?
• Which element provides primary maintenance support for maneuver companies and is detached from the FSC?
• What can you find in the BSA?
• Which statement best describes defense of a linear obstacle?
• Which company within the BSA is associated with defending against the most threatening avenue of approach?
• Disengaging from an enemy while still in the battlespace and moving to a new location is called?
• Which defensive operation type is characterized by delaying or withdrawing to preserve combat power?
• Which form is an area or mobile defense along or behind a linear obstacle (ex: mountain ranges or river lines)?
• Which form of offensive maneuver is primarily aimed at breaking through enemy defenses by penetrating the enemy positions?
• How many brigade combat teams can a division control?
• Which two factors are identified as the most important in a BSA site selection?
• In the tactical framework, which concept involves continuing the operation to ensure mission success after the enemy has been fixed or defeated?
• Which term is the ability to adapt sustainment operations to unexpected situations or circumstances affecting a mission?
• Which variation of an attack stops, denies, or destroys enemy forces by maximizing the element of surprise?
• Which defensive form is force oriented toward the destruction of the enemy rather than retention of terrain?
• Which offensive operation destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
• Which threat is a small enemy tactical unit or activities that can be defeated by a base or base cluster's defensive capabilities?
• The asset described as comprising task-organized multifunctional logistics assets to support fast-moving offensive operations is known as what?
• In the tactical framework, which concept concerns destroying or defeating the enemy to achieve the objective?
• What are the four concepts to the tactical framework?
• What form of defense does BSA employ?
• Which distance is listed for CSA to DSA?
• Which term describes the ability to react to changing requirements?
• A deliberate cycle of command, staff, and unit activities intended to synchronize current and future operations is called what?
• How many M109 Paladins are in a field artillery battery?
• During displacement of the BSA, which asset enables the BSB to continue uninterrupted support to the BCT?
• What term describes the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages?
• Which form of area defense defends along a linear obstacle?
• Which threat level refers to a small enemy force that can be defeated in support areas with organic forces and equipment in a perimeter defense?
• Which of the following is a principle of logistics?
• What are the 4 forms of an attack?
• Which of the following is a form of area defense?
• What are the two types of obstacles?
• Which unit is divisionally aligned BN organic to the DSB?
• Which term describes units that remain subordinate to the higher echelon HQ for extended periods?
• Which of the following is one of the four elements of the sustainment warfighting function?
• Who is the principle staff officer responsible for planning and synchronizing all sustainment operations to support units assigned or attached to the Brigade Combat Team?
• Which term means uninterrupted provision of sustainment across all levels of war?
• Which threat is an enemy force or activities beyond the defensive capability of both the base and base cluster and any local reserve or response force?
• In typical organizational structure, brigade combat teams usually operate as part of which formation?
• Which unit is responsible for establishing the division's primary sustainment area?
• DSA stands for which in this context?
• Which variation of attack is used by defenders to regain the initiative through offensive action?
• In the tactical framework, which concept involves locating the enemy to determine their disposition and strength?
• What is the mission of a BSB?
• Which retrograde operation involves moving away from the enemy while out of contact?
• What are the four types of battle positions?
• What is LOGSTAT required to be?
• What method of distribution has the customer come get their supplies?
• Which corps is headquartered at Fort Liberty, North Carolina?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the inherent elements of conventional and irregular warfare?
• Which option is one of the three dimensions mentioned in the material?
• Which term denotes moving away from the enemy while out of contact, maintaining separation?
• Which term describes a retrograde operation in which a force out of contact moves away from the enemy?
• How many Maneuver Battalions are in a standard Armor Brigade Combat Team?
• What is the term for a method of distributing supplies by which the receiving unit is issued supplies in its own area?
• Which form of maneuver seeks to rupture enemy defenses on a narrow front to disrupt the defensive system?
• Which form of maneuver is defined as avoiding the enemy's current positions and causing the enemy force to move out of their current positions?
• What are the three methods of distribution?
• What method of distribution bypasses an echelon of support?
• Which variation of an attack is executed by a defending force against an attacking enemy force to regain initiative through offensive action?
• How many forms of retrograde are listed?
• Which form of maneuver is primarily designed to fix the enemy in place over a broad front?
• Which company is able to assault rapidly through open terrain while engaging mechanized and armored enemies at long range?
• The Forward Support Company (FSC) is an organic unit of which headquarters element?
• What is the primary capability of an armored company?
• Which term defines processes and procedures to minimize the complexity of sustainment?
• Combined arms organizations accomplish their assigned mission by synchronizing the contributions of _________________________ to execute these forms of defense.
• Which form of area defense is used in the conduct of base and base cluster defense; oriented in all directions; aggressive patrolling and security operations?
• Which measure uses a barrier of fire to block enemy movement across a line?
• Which option is NOT a resupply method listed for a tactical operation?
• Which option is NOT a form of area defense?
• To extend the defender's time by trading space for time under pressure describes which retrograde operation?
• Whose decision is displacing the BSA?
• Where is III Armored Corps located?
• Which concept describes concentrating firepower and supporting systems within a defined area to destroy the enemy?
• Which medical role provides the most definitive medical care?
• How many M1 Abrams tanks are in an armored company?
• Which term best describes the function responsible for ensuring continued supply and support to a brigade?
• A maneuver that delays the enemy's momentum to gain time without fighting is termed?
• Which concept describes a defense that denies the enemy access to terrain to drive them into kill zones?
• Which term describes the ability to foresee operational requirements and initiate actions?
• Which statement identifies reverse slope defense?
• Which warfighting function focuses on safeguarding personnel and resources from threats?
• What is the primary sustainment area for the division established by the Division Sustainment Brigade?
• Which variation of attack is a temporary seizure of an objective with a planned withdrawal?
• What is the term for a variation of an attack used against an enemy preparing for attack and designed to disrupt the enemy's offensive capabilities?
• Distance from CSA to DSA is in which range?
• Which form of maneuver is defined as avoiding the principal enemy defenses by seizing objectives behind those defenses?
• When forces pull back after contact to preserve combat power, this is described as which operation?
• Which form of maneuver involves undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage?